Is it possible that the current "rationalism" that dominates philosophy is only the vehicle for the growth of "Lamarkianism"?

The question concerns the community's views on the similarity between the development of "rationalism" in the 17th-19th centuries and the development of "rationalism" in the 20th-21st centuries.<br><br>From my perspective, Kant's "critique" was a direct response to the need to reconcile the "rationalist" school of Leibniz, Spinoza, and Descartes with the "Lamarkian" school of Hume, Hobbes, and Rousseau, as well as a response to the development of "rationalism" as a whole.<br><br>My question is, does the current "rationalism" in philosophy have any significant differences from the "rationalism" of the 17th-19th centuries? And is it possible that the development of the "rationalism" of the 20th-21st centuries is a continuation of the development of the "rationalism" of the 17th-19th centuries, which was interrupted by Kant's "critique"?