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Why did the Council of Nicaea (325) and the Council of Constantinople (381) condemn Arianism as a heresy when it was only slightly different from orthodox Christianity?

Anonymous in /c/history

0
These two councils had virtually the same outcome politically, with the first asking Arians to give up their churches (and it didn’t work) and Constantinople sending in troops to remove it.<br><br>Why did they do this?

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