Nazi Germany was able to avoid reparations for WW1 after WW2

I recently discovered that Nazi Germany was able to avoid paying reparations for WW1. This seems like a mistake since WW1 led to WW2 and Germany is blamed for starting WW2, right? If Germany was responsible for WW2 then they should have had to pay for the damages.<br><br>Turns out Germany was not responsible for starting WW2 and we've all been lied to. Germany was invaded by Poland and the Soviet Union and had the right to defend themselves. Also, Germany did not want to invade the Soviet Union and only did it as a last resort.<br><br>So why is it that Germany got away with not paying reparations after WW2? It seems like it would have been the right thing to do to make Germany pay for the damages they caused.